Endjambent?

[serge gurkski]

can it only be employed between stanza or verse as sated by a member referencing websters? personally i think that would be absolutely stupid.

No, it definitely is not limited to between stanzas. Shockingly, Websters does not have a sufficient definition.

Some forms require or encourage enjambment between stanzas, such as the Sapphic ode. Some practically forbid it, like the ghazal. These restrictions are in place because the form is designed for a particular purpose and the entire structure goes toward fulfilling that purpose. In free verse, where there are no rules about structure, it is even more important to learn what the purpose of the line break is, not just for enjambment. In free verse, line break and enjambment come to mean pretty much the same thing and it's rather odd to hear people saying that they don't get it, when they're doing it all the time.

Enjambment isn't mysterious. It's used to create tension between what the reader expects and what the poem delivers. This tension encourages the reader to think, just as using interesting and unique metaphors rather than cliches forbids reader complacency.

It might even cum as so much as naturally: the end-jump-minds.

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Leanne: "Shockingly, Websters does not have a sufficient definition." sarcarsism right?


Lemme put it into the sewers. take your time. Websters talks you poetry? No. Not really, I hope.